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Andrew Wiles on proving Fermat’s Last Theorem (1995) [video]
ggm
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So I rang the ABC and asked to speak to the Science Desk. This was at around 7am by this time. I was connected immediately to Robyn Williams, the premier science communicator at the ABC, despite having no name, no evident back story or trust. He was absolutely delightful to talk to, agreed with a laugh that he often got excited calls about people squaring the circle or finding repeat patterns in PI digits and was used to crank callers, listened to me, probably did some checks and then said he'd contact somebody at Cambridge and see what the gen was. My memory is he called me back a little while later saying they'd confirmed a room was booked for a significant public announcement seminar, and thanked me for the tip. This was a long time ago, it's equally likely I misremembered and he gave me a name to check with in the UK and I did the leg work. The point is, I wasn't just told to bugger off.
Nowadays it would be all over twitter. John was a bit old school and liked phone calls. They had internet emails in 92 of course I think he just liked the physicality of a call.
jen729w
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"Nothing I ever do again…" – and then, having barely held it together for the last 30 seconds, he has to stop. It brings me to tears every time I watch it.
A man realising the sheer magnitude of the thing he did. It's the most relevant part for humanity today.
Ah! Found it. This is a better clip. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BaKyvr4ar1Q
elromulous
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Mathematicians / folks knowledgeable on the subject - do you think Fermat had an error in his (lost) proof? Or that there exists a solution that perhaps is more straightforward than Wiles's?
My understanding is that Wiles had to use a ton of math (and invent some new math?) that had not yet been invented in Fermat's time.
hackthemack
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He wrote his note in his copy of Arithmetica around 1637.
He most likely wrote his proof for the case of n=4 in the 1640s.
He sent letters to other mathematicians in 1640, 1657 where he talks about the case of n=3 but writes in such a way that it seems like he does not have the answer.
Why would he write n=4 after? If he had a generalized proof?
Why would he tease other mathematicians with a special case in 1657 if he already had a generalized proof?
kadoban
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My personal guess is he figured out later that his proof was broken or limited and never got around to fixing it.
applfanboysbgon
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hn_throwaway_99
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I think you have an odd definition of "responsible". Many (most?) theorems start out as conjectures, and I would strongly disagree that just because someone first formulated a problem that they're "responsible" for the eventual solution.
applfanboysbgon
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hn_throwaway_99
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That's not true. Even early on, most mathematicians doubted he had a proof. But I'd check out the history of the problem as described on Wikipedia. There was considerable research into the problem before Fermat, and general research into Diophantine equations had gone on for over a thousand years before Fermat. I have no doubt there would have been significant interest into solving the problem even if Fermat had never written his "I have a proof but it's too big to fit in the margin" note.
raverbashing
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But yes had him not pointed it out maybe it would have been relegated to a mathematical curiosity or something
I think there's a deeper (but simpler) reason for it, besides the way Wiles proved it
panzi
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Q.E.D. we agree and we all shout hurra
as he confirms what Fermat
jotted down on that margin
which could have used some enlarging
BinRoo
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alex1138
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One interesting thing of FLT is Wiles is on record as saying it opened the door (I think. This is from memory) to Langlands Program, a series of mathematical connections
Harder problems of course exist, Riemann Hypothesis et al but FLT still took hundreds of years to solve